26/09/2026
TNPSC GROUP PRELIMS 2026
200 Most-Expected Questions
https://tnpsc.co
PART I — GENERAL SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY
Questions 1–15
1. Which fundamental force is responsible for keeping planets in their orbits around the Sun?
A) Electromagnetic force
B) Strong nuclear force
C) Gravitational force
D) Weak nuclear force
2. The SI unit of electric resistance is:
A) Volt
B) Ohm
C) Ampere
D) Watt
3. Which phenomenon explains the blue colour of the sky?
A) Reflection
B) Refraction
C) Dispersion
D) Scattering
4. Which part of the human brain is primarily responsible for maintaining body balance?
A) Cerebrum
B) Cerebellum
C) Medulla
D) Hypothalamus
5. Insulin is secreted by:
A) Liver
B) Thyroid
C) Pancreas
D) Adrenal gland
6. Which vitamin deficiency causes scurvy?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B12
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin D
7. The genetic material in most organisms is:
A) RNA
B) DNA
C) Protein
D) Lipid
8. Which blood cells are primarily responsible for immunity?
A) RBCs
B) Platelets
C) WBCs
D) Plasma cells only
9. Which of the following is a greenhouse gas?
A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Argon
10. The ozone layer is mainly present in the:
A) Troposphere
B) Stratosphere
C) Mesosphere
D) Thermosphere
11. Which one is a semiconductor?
A) Copper
B) Aluminium
C) Silicon
D) Silver
12. CRISPR technology is primarily associated with:
A) Gene editing
B) Nuclear fission
C) Satellite navigation
D) Weather forecasting
13. The speed of light is maximum in:
A) Water
B) Glass
C) Vacuum
D) Diamond
14. Which organ is primarily responsible for filtration of blood and formation of urine?
A) Heart
B) Kidney
C) Liver
D) Spleen
15. Vaccination primarily works by:
A) Destroying all microorganisms
B) Stimulating immune memory
C) Increasing blood pressure
D) Preventing antibody formation
PART II — INDIAN POLITY & CONSTITUTION
Questions 16–40
16. The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on:
A) 15 August 1947
B) 26 November 1949
C) 26 January 1950
D) 24 January 1950
17. Fundamental Rights are contained in:
A) Part II
B) Part III
C) Part IV
D) Part IVA
18. Article 32 is associated with:
A) Equality before law
B) Constitutional remedies
C) Freedom of religion
D) Right to education
19. Which Fundamental Right was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the “heart and soul” of the Constitution?
A) Article 14
B) Article 19
C) Article 21
D) Article 32
20. Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in:
A) Part III
B) Part IV
C) Part IVA
D) Part V
21. Fundamental Duties were added by the:
A) 24th Amendment
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 44th Amendment
D) 73rd Amendment
22. The voting age was reduced from 21 to 18 by the:
A) 42nd Amendment
B) 44th Amendment
C) 61st Amendment
D) 73rd Amendment
23. The President of India is elected by:
A) Lok Sabha only
B) Rajya Sabha only
C) Electoral college
D) Direct election
24. The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of:
A) Lok Sabha
B) Rajya Sabha
C) Legislative Council
D) NITI Aayog
25. A Money Bill can be introduced only in:
A) Rajya Sabha
B) Lok Sabha
C) Either House
D) Joint sitting
26. Who decides whether a bill is a Money Bill?
A) President
B) Prime Minister
C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
D) Chief Justice of India
27. The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha under the Constitution is:
A) 238
B) 245
C) 250
D) 252
28. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment relates to:
A) Municipalities
B) Panchayats
C) GST
D) Fundamental Duties
29. The 74th Constitutional Amendment relates to:
A) Panchayats
B) Municipalities
C) Cooperative societies
D) Emergency provisions
30. The Finance Commission is constituted under Article:
A) 280
B) 324
C) 356
D) 360
31. The Election Commission of India is provided under Article:
A) 280
B) 315
C) 324
D) 368
32. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is mentioned in:
A) Article 76
B) Article 148
C) Article 280
D) Article 324
33. The Attorney General of India is appointed by the:
A) Prime Minister
B) President
C) Chief Justice
D) Parliament
34. Which writ is issued to produce a person allegedly unlawfully detained before the court?
A) Mandamus
B) Habeas Corpus
C) Certiorari
D) Quo Warranto
35. The Basic Structure doctrine was established in:
A) Golaknath case
B) Kesavananda Bharati case
C) Minerva Mills case
D) Maneka Gandhi case
36. The constitutional amendment procedure is primarily dealt with in:
A) Article 352
B) Article 356
C) Article 360
D) Article 368
37. National Emergency is provided under:
A) Article 352
B) Article 356
C) Article 360
D) Article 365
38. President's Rule in a State is imposed under:
A) Article 352
B) Article 356
C) Article 360
D) Article 368
39. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to:
A) President
B) Rajya Sabha
C) Lok Sabha
D) Supreme Court
40. Which Schedule contains provisions relating to anti-defection?
A) Eighth
B) Ninth
C) Tenth
D) Twelfth
PART III — INDIAN HISTORY
Questions 41–65
41. The Great Bath was discovered at:
A) Harappa
B) Mohenjo-daro
C) Lothal
D) Kalibangan
42. The Indus Valley Civilization was primarily:
A) Nomadic
B) Urban
C) Pastoral only
D) Forest-based
43. The oldest Veda is:
A) Sama Veda
B) Yajur Veda
C) Rig Veda
D) Atharva Veda
44. Gautama Buddha attained enlightenment at:
A) Sarnath
B) Kushinagar
C) Bodh Gaya
D) Lumbini
45. Mahavira was the:
A) 20th Tirthankara
B) 22nd Tirthankara
C) 23rd Tirthankara
D) 24th Tirthankara
46. Ashoka belonged to the:
A) Gupta dynasty
B) Maurya dynasty
C) Nanda dynasty
D) Satavahana dynasty
47. The Arthashastra is traditionally associated with:
A) Kalidasa
B) Kautilya
C) Banabhatta
D) Patanjali
48. The Gupta period is often associated with advances in:
A) Science and mathematics
B) Only military technology
C) Maritime exploration alone
D) Printing technology
49. The Brihadisvara Temple at Thanjavur was built by:
A) Rajendra I
B) Rajaraja I
C) Kulothunga I
D) Karikala
50. The Chola administration is particularly noted for:
A) Village self-government institutions
B) Complete absence of local administration
C) Nomadic administration
D) Tribal councils only
51. The Battle of Plassey took place in:
A) 1757
B) 1764
C) 1773
D) 1857
52. The Battle of Buxar took place in:
A) 1757
B) 1764
C) 1772
D) 1784
53. The Permanent Settlement was introduced by:
A) Wellesley
B) Cornwallis
C) Dalhousie
D) Curzon
54. The Doctrine of Lapse is associated with:
A) Dalhousie
B) Ripon
C) Curzon
D) Bentinck
55. The Revolt of 1857 began at:
A) Delhi
B) Meerut
C) Kanpur
D) Lucknow
56. The Indian National Congress was founded in:
A) 1885
B) 1889
C) 1905
D) 1911
57. The first session of the Indian National Congress was held at:
A) Calcutta
B) Madras
C) Bombay
D) Allahabad
58. The Partition of Bengal took place in:
A) 1903
B) 1905
C) 1907
D) 1911
59. The Swadeshi Movement was closely associated with the:
A) Partition of Bengal
B) Simon Commission
C) Rowlatt Act
D) Quit India Movement
60. The Jallianwala Bagh massacre occurred in:
A) 1917
B) 1919
C) 1921
D) 1922
61. The Non-Cooperation Movement was launched in:
A) 1919
B) 1920
C) 1922
D) 1930
62. The Civil Disobedience Movement began with the:
A) Champaran Movement
B) Dandi March
C) Quit India Movement
D) Bardoli Satyagraha
63. The Quit India Movement was launched in:
A) 1939
B) 1940
C) 1942
D) 1946
64. The Cabinet Mission came to India in:
A) 1942
B) 1945
C) 1946
D) 1947
65. The Indian Independence Act was passed in:
A) 1946
B) 1947
C) 1948
D) 1950
PART IV — TAMIL NADU HISTORY, CULTURE & SOCIAL MOVEMENTS
Questions 66–105
66. Keezhadi archaeological excavations are associated with the ancient settlement of the:
A) Vaigai valley
B) Cauvery delta
C) Tamiraparani valley
D) Palar valley
67. The ancient Tamil grammatical work is:
A) Silappathikaram
B) Tholkappiyam
C) Manimekalai
D) Purananuru
68. The Eight Anthologies are collectively known as:
A) Pathinenkilkanakku
B) Ettuthokai
C) Pattuppattu
D) Aimperumkappiyam
69. Silappathikaram was authored by:
A) Sattanar
B) Ilango Adigal
C) Kamban
D) Sekkizhar
70. Manimekalai is attributed to:
A) Ilango Adigal
B) Sattanar
C) Tiruvalluvar
D) Avvaiyar
71. Tirukkural consists of:
A) 108 chapters
B) 120 chapters
C) 133 chapters
D) 150 chapters
72. Tirukkural contains:
A) 1,330 couplets
B) 1,300 couplets
C) 1,350 couplets
D) 1,080 couplets
73. The three major divisions of Tirukkural are:
A) Aram, Porul, Inbam
B) Aram, Kalvi, Inbam
C) Porul, Veedu, Inbam
D) Aram, Veedu, Kalvi
74. The Justice Party was founded in:
A) 1905
B) 1916
C) 1920
D) 1935
75. The Self-Respect Movement was founded by:
A) Periyar E.V. Ramasamy
B) Rajaji
C) Kamarajar
D) Subramania Bharati
76. The Self-Respect Movement was launched in:
A) 1919
B) 1925
C) 1930
D) 1937
77. The Vaikom Satyagraha was associated with the struggle against:
A) Untouchability and caste restrictions
B) Land revenue
C) Indigo cultivation
D) Salt tax only
78. Periyar participated prominently in the:
A) Vaikom Satyagraha
B) Champaran Satyagraha
C) Bardoli Satyagraha
D) Kheda Satyagraha
79. The first woman president of the Indian National Congress was:
A) Sarojini Naidu
B) Annie Besant
C) Vijayalakshmi Pandit
D) Sucheta Kripalani
80. Annie Besant's Home Rule movement was active in:
A) Tamil Nadu and other parts of India
B) Punjab alone
C) Bengal alone
D) Assam alone
81. V.O. Chidambaranar is associated with:
A) Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company
B) Home Rule League
C) Justice Party
D) Self-Respect Movement
82. Subramania Bharati was popularly known as:
A) Mahakavi
B) Kavimani
C) Perarignar
D) Makkal Kavignar
83. Vanchinathan is associated with the assassination of:
A) Robert Ashe
B) Curzon
C) General Dyer
D) Wellesley
84. The Salt Satyagraha in Tamil Nadu was led at Vedaranyam by:
A) C. Rajagopalachari
B) Kamarajar
C) Periyar
D) V.O.C.
85. The Justice Party formed the government in the Madras Presidency after the:
A) 1919 elections
B) 1920 elections
C) 1937 elections
D) 1946 elections
86. The first Chief Minister of Madras Presidency from the Justice Party was:
A) A. Subbarayalu Reddiar
B) Rajaji
C) Kamarajar
D) P. T. Rajan
87. The Dravidian movement emphasised:
A) Social justice
B) Hereditary privilege
C) Colonial rule
D) Feudalism
88. Periyar founded the newspaper:
A) Kudi Arasu
B) Swadesamitran
C) The Hindu
D) Young India
89. Arignar Anna founded the political party:
A) DMK
B) AIADMK
C) Justice Party
D) Congress Socialist Party
90. The Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam was founded in:
A) 1944
B) 1947
C) 1949
D) 1956
91. The Tamil Nadu name change from Madras State was associated with the government led by:
A) C.N. Annadurai
B) Kamarajar
C) Rajaji
D) M.G. Ramachandran
92. The Self-Respect Marriage movement challenged:
A) Caste and ritual restrictions in marriage
B) Parliamentary elections
C) Land taxation
D) Industrialisation
93. The Chola temple architecture is especially associated with the:
A) Dravida style
B) Nagara style
C) Vesara style
D) Indo-Islamic style
94. Mamallapuram monuments are primarily associated with the:
A) Pallavas
B) Cholas
C) Pandyas
D) Cheras
95. The Shore Temple is located at:
A) Thanjavur
B) Mamallapuram
C) Madurai
D) Tiruchirappalli
96. The Sangam-era port city associated with the Cholas was:
A) Puhar
B) Madurai
C) Vanji
D) Korkai
97. Korkai was particularly associated with the:
A) Pandyas
B) Pallavas
C) Cholas
D) Cheras
98. The ancient Tamil region was traditionally divided into five landscapes called:
A) Tinai
B) Aram
C) Puram
D) Agam
99. Kurinji is traditionally associated with:
A) Mountains
B) Coast
C) Agricultural plains
D) Desert
100. Neithal is associated with:
A) Mountain
B) Forest
C) Seashore
D) Arid land
101. The Tamil epic that describes the life of Kannagi is:
A) Manimekalai
B) Silappathikaram
C) Civaka Cintamani
D) Kundalakesi
102. The author of Periyapuranam was:
A) Sekkizhar
B) Kamban
C) Ottakoothar
D) Ilango Adigal
103. Kamba Ramayanam was written by:
A) Kamban
B) Sekkizhar
C) Bharati
D) Avvaiyar
104. The Alvars were associated primarily with:
A) Vaishnavism
B) Buddhism
C) Jainism
D) Shaivism
105. The Nayanmars were associated primarily with:
A) Jainism
B) Buddhism
C) Shaivism
D) Vaishnavism
PART V — INDIAN & TAMIL NADU GEOGRAPHY
Questions 106–125
106. The longest river flowing entirely within India is generally identified as:
A) Ganga
B) Godavari
C) Krishna
D) Narmada
107. The Western Ghats are also known as:
A) Sahyadri
B) Aravalli
C) Shivalik
D) Nilgiri
108. The highest peak in South India is:
A) Doddabetta
B) Anamudi
C) Agasthyamalai
D) Mahendragiri
109. The Nilgiri Hills are part of the:
A) Eastern Ghats only
B) Western Ghats system
C) Aravalli system
D) Himalayas
110. The southwest monsoon reaches Kerala generally in:
A) January
B) March
C) June
D) September
111. Tamil Nadu receives a significant share of its rainfall from the:
A) Northeast Monsoon
B) Southwest Monsoon only
C) Western disturbances
D) Retreating cyclones only
112. The Cauvery originates in:
A) Kerala
B) Karnataka
C) Tamil Nadu
D) Andhra Pradesh
113. Mettur Dam is built across the:
A) Vaigai
B) Cauvery
C) Palar
D) Tamiraparani
114. Vaigai Dam is associated with the river:
A) Vaigai
B) Cauvery
C) Bhavani
D) Amaravati
115. The Palk Strait separates India from:
A) Maldives
B) Sri Lanka
C) Myanmar
D) Bangladesh
116. Gulf of Mannar is particularly famous for:
A) Coral reefs and marine biodiversity
B) Coal deposits
C) Himalayan glaciers
D) Desert vegetation
117. The Coromandel Coast lies along the:
A) Arabian Sea
B) Bay of Bengal
C) Indian Ocean only
D) Lakshadweep Sea
118. The black soil is particularly suitable for:
A) Cotton
B) Tea
C) Jute
D) Coconut
119. Red soil gets its colour mainly from:
A) Calcium
B) Iron
C) Magnesium
D) Potassium
120. The largest state in India by area is:
A) Madhya Pradesh
B) Rajasthan
C) Maharashtra
D) Uttar Pradesh
121. The smallest Indian state by area is:
A) Goa
B) Sikkim
C) Tripura
D) Manipur
122. The Sundarbans are located in the delta of the:
A) Godavari-Krishna
B) Ganga-Brahmaputra-Meghna
C) Narmada-Tapi
D) Mahanadi
123. Silent Valley National Park is located in:
A) Tamil Nadu
B) Kerala
C) Karnataka
D) Andhra Pradesh
124. Mudumalai Tiger Reserve is located in:
A) Nilgiris
B) Madurai
C) Thanjavur
D) Ramanathapuram
125. Point Calimere is also known as:
A) Kodikkarai
B) Kanyakumari
C) Rameswaram
D) Pichavaram
PART VI — INDIAN ECONOMY
Questions 126–145
126. GDP measures the value of:
A) Intermediate goods only
B) Final goods and services produced within a country
C) Imports only
D) Government expenditure only
127. Inflation refers to:
A) Fall in general price level
B) Sustained rise in general price level
C) Increase in exports only
D) Increase in employment only
128. The institution responsible for monetary policy in India is:
A) SEBI
B) RBI
C) Finance Commission
D) NITI Aayog
129. Repo rate refers to the rate at which:
A) Banks lend to customers
B) RBI lends short-term funds to banks against securities
C) Government lends to RBI
D) Banks lend to RBI
130. As of July 2026, RBI's published policy repo rate was:
A) 4.50%
B) 5.25%
C) 6.50%
D) 7.00%
The RBI's published rate table showed 5.25% on 10 July 2026.
131. CRR is maintained by commercial banks with:
A) SEBI
B) RBI
C) NABARD
D) Finance Ministry
132. GST is primarily a:
A) Direct tax
B) Indirect tax
C) Wealth tax
D) Corporate tax
133. GST was introduced in India in:
A) 2014
B) 2016
C) 2017
D) 2019
134. NITI Aayog replaced the:
A) Finance Commission
B) Planning Commission
C) RBI
D) National Development Council
135. The Planning Commission was replaced by NITI Aayog in:
A) 2014
B) 2015
C) 2016
D) 2017
136. Fiscal deficit broadly represents:
A) Total expenditure minus total receipts excluding borrowings
B) Exports minus imports
C) Revenue receipts minus tax receipts
D) Money supply minus inflation
137. The Union Budget 2026–27 was presented on:
A) 1 January 2026
B) 1 February 2026
C) 28 February 2026
D) 1 March 2026
The official Union Budget website records the 2026–27 Budget and Finance Minister's speech dated 1 February 2026.
138. The Economic Survey is normally presented:
A) After the Union Budget
B) Before the Union Budget
C) With the Census
D) After the Finance Bill is passed
139. Balance of Payments records:
A) Only government expenditure
B) Economic transactions between residents and the rest of the world
C) Only exports
D) Only imports
140. The current account includes:
A) Trade in goods and services and certain transfers/income
B) Only capital flows
C) Only FDI
D) Only government borrowing
141. FDI stands for:
A) Foreign Direct Investment
B) Federal Development Index
C) Financial Development Institution
D) Foreign Debt Instrument
142. NABARD is primarily associated with:
A) Agriculture and rural development
B) Space research
C) Defence production
D) Telecom regulation
143. SEBI regulates:
A) Insurance
B) Securities market
C) Banking monetary policy
D) Panchayats
144. The Human Development Index is published by:
A) IMF
B) World Bank
C) UNDP
D) WTO
145. Per capita income is obtained broadly by dividing national income by:
A) Area
B) Population
C) Exports
D) Labour force only
PART VII — ENVIRONMENT & ECOLOGY
Questions 146–160
146. The basic structural and functional unit of an ecosystem is:
A) Species
B) Ecosystem
C) Population
D) Gene
147. Producers in an ecosystem are generally:
A) Herbivores
B) Carnivores
C) Green plants
D) Decomposers
148. The primary source of energy in most ecosystems is:
A) Soil
B) Sun
C) Wind
D) Water
149. A food chain begins generally with:
A) Consumers
B) Producers
C) Decomposers
D) Carnivores
150. Biodiversity refers to diversity at:
A) Genetic level only
B) Species level only
C) Ecosystem level only
D) Genetic, species and ecosystem levels
151. Project Tiger was launched in India in:
A) 1969
B) 1973
C) 1980
D) 1986
152. The Wildlife Protection Act of India was enacted in:
A) 1962
B) 1972
C) 1982
D) 1992
153. The Environment Protection Act was enacted in:
A) 1972
B) 1980
C) 1986
D) 1992
154. The Ramsar Convention is associated with:
A) Wetlands
B) Deserts
C) Mountains
D) Oceans only
155. The Montreal Protocol is mainly associated with:
A) Biodiversity
B) Ozone-depleting substances
C) Climate finance
D) Wetlands
156. The Paris Agreement concerns:
A) International trade
B) Climate change
C) Nuclear weapons
D) Maritime boundaries
157. Which is a renewable energy source?
A) Coal
B) Petroleum
C) Solar energy
D) Natural gas
158. Mangrove ecosystems are particularly important for:
A) Coastal protection and biodiversity
B) Desertification
C) Glacier formation
D) Mining
159. The IUCN Red List primarily assesses:
A) Countries' GDP
B) Species conservation status
C) Ocean temperature
D) Forest revenue
160. Eutrophication is commonly associated with excessive:
A) Nutrient enrichment of water bodies
B) Oxygen production
C) Soil erosion only
D) Salinity reduction
PART VIII — INDIAN AGRICULTURE, SOCIAL ISSUES & GOVERNANCE
Questions 161–175
161. The Green Revolution in India was initially associated mainly with increased production of:
A) Wheat and rice
B) Cotton and tea
C) Sugarcane and coffee
D) Pulses only
162. MSP stands for:
A) Minimum Support Price
B) Maximum Selling Price
C) Market Supply Programme
D) Minimum Sales Programme
163. The Public Distribution System primarily aims to:
A) Provide essential commodities at subsidised prices
B) Increase luxury imports
C) Promote stock markets
D) Finance industries
164. MGNREGA provides a legal guarantee of wage employment primarily in:
A) Urban areas
B) Rural areas
C) Industrial zones
D) Export-processing zones
165. SHG commonly stands for:
A) State Housing Grant
B) Self Help Group
C) Social Health Guarantee
D) State Human Group
166. Financial inclusion aims to:
A) Exclude informal workers
B) Ensure access to useful financial services
C) Reduce bank branches
D) Restrict digital payments
167. Social audit is particularly associated with:
A) Transparency and accountability
B) Monetary policy
C) Foreign trade
D) Defence procurement only
168. E-governance refers to the use of:
A) Traditional paper administration only
B) Information and communication technology in governance
C) Private banking only
D) Military technology only
169. The Right to Information Act was enacted in:
A) 2001
B) 2005
C) 2010
D) 2012
170. The National Food Security Act was enacted in:
A) 2009
B) 2011
C) 2013
D) 2016
171. The demographic dividend is related to:
A) A relatively large working-age population
B) Increase in elderly population only
C) Decline in literacy
D) Decline in labour force
172. Human capital formation primarily involves investment in:
A) Education and health
B) Gold reserves
C) Land only
D) Currency printing
173. Sustainable development seeks to balance:
A) Economic, social and environmental objectives
B) Only economic growth
C) Only environmental protection
D) Only industrialisation
174. The Sustainable Development Goals consist of:
A) 15 goals
B) 17 goals
C) 20 goals
D) 21 goals
175. The target year for achieving the SDGs is:
A) 2025
B) 2030
C) 2040
D) 2050
PART IX — CURRENT AFFAIRS 2025–2026
Questions 176–185
These are deliberately focused on areas that can connect current affairs with the static syllabus, rather than trivia.
176. The Union Budget for 2026–27 was presented by:
A) Amit Shah
B) Nirmala Sitharaman
C) Piyush Goyal
D) S. Jaishankar
177. The Union Budget 2026–27 relates to which financial year?
A) 2025–26
B) 2026–27
C) 2027–28
D) 2024–25
178. The official Union Budget portal states that the Economic Survey 2025–26 is associated with the Budget 2026–27 documents. Which ministry presents the Union Budget?
A) Ministry of Home Affairs
B) Ministry of Finance
C) Ministry of Commerce
D) Ministry of Planning
179. According to the RBI's July 2026 published rates, the Standing Deposit Facility rate was:
A) 4.50%
B) 5.00%
C) 5.25%
D) 5.50%
180. According to the RBI's July 2026 published rates, the Cash Reserve Ratio was:
A) 2.50%
B) 3.00%
C) 3.50%
D) 4.00%
181. The 2026–27 Tamil Nadu budget publications are maintained through which state government financial platform?
A) Kalanjiyam
B) e-Sevai
C) TNeGA
D) TNSWAN
The Tamil Nadu Treasury and Accounts Department's Kalanjiyam portal lists 2026–27 budget publications.
182. Tamil Nadu's Rural Development Department reported the release of Sixth State Finance Commission grants for 2026–27 to:
A) Village Panchayats and Panchayat Unions
B) Municipal corporations only
C) Universities only
D) Industrial estates only
The relevant government order covers grants for 12,480 Village Panchayats and 388 Panchayat Unions.
183. The Union Budget 2026–27 documents include the:
A) Annual Financial Statement
B) Census Report 2031
C) Five-Year Plan
D) Finance Commission Award 2035
184. The 2026 TNPSC Group I Preliminary examination is scheduled for:
A) 20 September 2026
B) 27 September 2026
C) 4 October 2026
D) 11 October 2026
185. According to the current TNPSC Group I Preliminary scheme, General Studies contains:
A) 100 questions
B) 125 questions
C) 150 questions
D) 175 questions
The official TNPSC notification specifies 175 General Studies questions and 25 Aptitude & Mental Ability questions.
PART X — TAMIL NADU ADMINISTRATION, ECONOMY & SCHEMES
Questions 186–190
186. The Sixth State Finance Commission is primarily connected with financial devolution to:
A) Local bodies
B) Supreme Court
C) Parliament
D) RBI
187. Tamil Nadu's 2026 government publications list the Sixth State Finance Commission grants for:
A) 10 months from April 2026 to January 2027
B) 6 months only
C) 12 months from January to December 2026
D) 5 months only
188. The 2026 Tamil Nadu budget framework includes demands relating to departments such as:
A) Agriculture
B) Animal Husbandry
C) Fisheries
D) All of the above
189. Tamil Nadu's 2026 official publications include amendments relating to the:
A) Tamil Nadu Panchayats Act
B) Tamil Nadu GST framework
C) Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission functions
D) All of the above
The State's official Gazette listing records these 2026 Acts, including amendments relating to Panchayats, TNPSC functions and GST.
190. The TNPSC Group I syllabus specifically includes which of the following under Tamil Nadu administration and socio-economic development?
A) E-governance
B) Social justice
C) Welfare schemes
D) All of the above
The official syllabus explicitly includes these themes.
PART XI — APTITUDE
Questions 191–197
191. If 25% of a number is 80, the number is:
A) 240
B) 280
C) 320
D) 360
192. The HCF of 36 and 48 is:
A) 6
B) 8
C) 12
D) 16
193. The LCM of 12 and 18 is:
A) 24
B) 30
C) 36
D) 48
194. A sum of ₹5,000 is invested at 10% simple interest for 2 years. The interest is:
A) ₹500
B) ₹750
C) ₹1,000
D) ₹1,100
195. If A:B = 3:5 and B:C = 10:7, then A:C is:
A) 3:7
B) 6:7
C) 7:6
D) 5:7
196. A can complete a work in 10 days and B in 15 days. Working together, they complete it in:
A) 5 days
B) 6 days
C) 7 days
D) 8 days
197. The area of a circle of radius 7 cm, using π = 22/7, is:
A) 144 cm²
B) 154 cm²
C) 164 cm²
D) 176 cm²
PART XII — REASONING
Questions 198–200
198. Find the next number:
2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
A) 36
B) 40
C) 42
D) 44
199. If CAT is coded as DBU, then DOG is coded as:
A) EPH
B) EOG
C) FPH
D) DPH
200. A person walks 5 km north, then 5 km east, then 5 km south. In which direction is the person from the starting point?
A) North
B) South
C) East
D) West
ANSWER KEY
Q Ans Q Ans Q Ans Q Ans
1 C 51 A 101 B 151 B
2 B 52 B 102 A 152 B
3 D 53 B 103 A 153 C
4 B 54 A 104 A 154 A
5 C 55 B 105 C 155 B
6 C 56 A 106 B 156 B
7 B 57 C 107 A 157 C
8 C 58 B 108 B 158 A
9 C 59 A 109 B 159 B
10 B 60 B 110 C 160 A
11 C 61 B 111 A 161 A
12 A 62 B 112 B 162 A
13 C 63 C 113 B 163 A
14 B 64 C 114 A 164 B
15 B 65 B 115 B 165 B
16 B 66 A 116 A 166 B
17 B 67 B 117 B 167 A
18 B 68 B 118 A 168 B
19 D 69 B 119 B 169 B
20 B 70 B 120 B 170 C
21 B 71 C 121 A 171 A
22 C 72 A 122 B 172 A
23 C 73 A 123 B 173 A
24 B 74 B 124 A 174 B
25 B 75 A 125 A 175 B
26 C 76 B 126 B 176 B
27 C 77 A 127 B 177 B
28 B 78 A 128 B 178 B
29 B 79 B 129 B 179 B
30 A 80 A 130 B 180 B
31 C 81 A 131 B 181 A
32 B 82 A 132 B 182 A
33 B 83 A 133 C 183 A
34 B 84 A 134 B 184 B
35 B 85 B 135 B 185 D
36 D 86 A 136 A 186 A
37 A 87 A 137 B 187 A
38 B 88 A 138 B 188 D
39 C 89 A 139 B 189 D
40 C 90 C 140 A 190 D
41 B 91 A 141 A 191 C
42 B 92 A 142 A 192 C
43 C 93 A 143 B 193 C
44 C 94 A 144 C 194 C
45 D 95 B 145 B 195 B
46 B 96 A 146 B 196 B
47 B 97 A 147 C 197 B
48 A 98 A 148 B 198 C
49 B 99 A 149 B 199 A
50 A 100 C 150 D 200 C
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